Hi there all, Was wondering if anyone knew the answer to this.
Hypothetically speaking. If a peloton was 200m long as they cross the finish line, guy #1 would get the same time as guy #100 who is 500m back, right?
What if guy #99 suddenly pulled back and allowed a 1 second gap between #99 and #98.
Would guy #100 be clocked 1 second behind the peloton or would he be clocked at real time (which is the time it would take to cover the 200m) ie clocked from guy #98 or clocked from guy #1.
Thanks for the quick reply, but I'm not sure if what I'm asking is there. ie. in the above scenario, is the time difference the time between cyclist #100 and #98 or #100 and #1.
Thanks for the quick reply, but I'm not sure if what I'm asking is there. ie. in the above scenario, is the time difference the time between cyclist #100 and #98 or #100 and #1.
Arhh.. I get you now... good question - I have no idea :|
Hi there all, Was wondering if anyone knew the answer to this.
Hypothetically speaking. If a peloton was 200m long as they cross the finish line, guy #1 would get the same time as guy #100 who is 500m back, right?
What if guy #99 suddenly pulled back and allowed a 1 second gap between #99 and #98.
Would guy #100 be clocked 1 second behind the peloton or would he be clocked at real time (which is the time it would take to cover the 200m) ie clocked from guy #98 or clocked from guy #1.
As I understand it, the first rider in any group is given the time that has elapsed since the start of the race. All riders in the same group are given the same time.
In your example, the first 98 riders get the same time as the winner. If they take 20 seconds from when rider #1 crosses and #98 crosses and #99 is 1 second behind #98, then he would get the winner's time +21 seconds. Guy #100 is in the same group as guy #99 so he would also lose 21 seconds. So he would be clocked essentially from guy #1
As I understand it, the first rider in any group is given the time that has elapsed since the start of the race. All riders in the same group are given the same time.
In your example, the first 98 riders get the same time as the winner. If they take 20 seconds from when rider #1 crosses and #98 crosses and #99 is 1 second behind #98, then he would get the winner's time +21 seconds. Guy #100 is in the same group as guy #99 so he would also lose 21 seconds. So he would be clocked essentially from guy #1
That's what I suspected.
So even though #99 and and #100 is only 1 second from the peloton, they are given as 21 secs behind.
I wonder if this is ever used tactically, eg. say Rasmussen (#2 in the GC) is in the peloton, and there are 7 Discovery riders in front of him. And as they approach the finish line, they detach just slightly from the main bunch so there will be a time difference. This is so that Armstrong, who is in the peloton, will gain some time over Rasmussen.
