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Road Cycling
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5 August 2006
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wimpyVO2
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  1. "Tom Kunich" <cyclintom@yahoo. com> a écrit dans le message de news:
    [email hidden]...
    | "trg" <[email hidden]> wrote in message
    | news:[email hidden]...
    | >
    | > It's the athlete who does the splitting. And he chooses from amongst
    | > several sample containers.
    |
    | I suggest you find one of the relatively common demonstrations of slight
    of
    | hand or pick-pocketing. It is a relatively common skill. How do you
    suppose
    | there are gamblers that can cheat in front of the entire table without
    being
    | caught? That's why they have cameras on all the tables these days.
    |

    LOL.

    Hypothesis 1) A cyclist doped and got caught.
    Hypothesis 2) The DSO practiced slight of hand until he became so good at it
    that he was able to switch the cups without even touching them.

    5.8.5 From this point [selection of the collection vessel- trg], the sample
    collection vessel shall be handled only by the Athlete unless the Athlete
    authorizes the DCO/Chaperone or the Athlete Representative to handle the
    vessel on his/her behalf. Such authorization must be documented.

    We'll leave the motive of the DSO to the student as an exercise.

    en.wikipedia.orgOccam's Razor

  2. "gds" <[email hidden]> wrote in message
    news:[email hidden]...

    Quoted message said:


    Tom Kunich said:


    Here's a clue - when you get a B sample back it's clear who it belongs
    to.

    So on the one hand we hear the argument that these tests have poor
    reliability and some even imply poor validity.

    But now you imply a new wrinkle. Of course if the sample have an ID
    number the first test (A) will be blind but the secong (B) may not be.
    While clearly someone has to go find the B sample by its ID number. But
    if the lab does large number of tests in fact the technician may not
    know who the samples belong to. Thye B sample can simply be one (or
    several) in a much larger batch run.

    But your implication is that not only does the technician know to whom
    the sample belongs but he or someone else can sabotage the sample or
    the process so that the results come out just the same as the A sample.
    Pretty good with a test of questionalbe reliabiltiy. Or do they just
    make up the results and skip the test?

    At some point you guys just have to give it up. But clearly your are
    not at that point. Is Elvis dead yet?

    You seem to be missing the point - there's a basic difference between the
    American system of justice and the European one. In American the possibility
    of an error is enough to nullify the government's case. In Europe only PROOF
    of an exact error is enough to stop a case.

    In the case of athletes which system do you prefer?

  3. gds said:


    Tom Kunich said:


    Here's a clue - when you get a B sample back it's clear who it belongs to.

    So on the one hand we hear the argument that these tests have poor
    reliability and some even imply poor validity.

    But now you imply a new wrinkle. Of course if the sample have an ID
    number the first test (A) will be blind but the secong (B) may not be.
    While clearly someone has to go find the B sample by its ID number. But
    if the lab does large number of tests in fact the technician may not
    know who the samples belong to. Thye B sample can simply be one (or
    several) in a much larger batch run.

    They stayed late for this one, remember. Not much guessing required.

    Ron

    Quoted message said:

    But your implication is that not only does the technician know to whom
    the sample belongs but he or someone else can sabotage the sample or
    the process so that the results come out just the same as the A sample.
    Pretty good with a test of questionalbe reliabiltiy. Or do they just
    make up the results and skip the test?

    At some point you guys just have to give it up. But clearly your are
    not at that point. Is Elvis dead yet?

  4. in 521677 20060807 235554 'Tom Kunich' cyclintom@yahoo. com said:

    You seem to be missing the point - there's a basic difference between the
    American system of justice and the European one.

    Do you know how many countries (and therefore legal systems) there are in
    Europe?
    Such stupid generalisations do not help your credibility.

    And as I've pointed out before, the American system came from Europe (Britain).

  5. Tom Kunich said:
    Quoted message said:
    Quoted message said:

    At some point you guys just have to give it up. But clearly your are


    not at that point. Is Elvis dead yet?

    You seem to be missing the point - there's a basic difference between the
    American system of justice and the European one. In American the possibility
    of an error is enough to nullify the government's case. In Europe only PROOF
    of an exact error is enough to stop a case.

    In the case of athletes which system do you prefer?

    Tome that isn't the issue. The rules are well known by the athletes
    BEFORE they compete. So, by competing they accept the rules.
    Complaining that other rules or processes would be better after the
    fact doesn't hold much sway with me.And the opportunity to make serious
    mney as a cyclist is totally dependent on racing in Europe. So, the
    Europeans are paying the bill -why is it unreasonable to play by their
    rules?

    So, if you want to argue that based on current events you would like to
    see the rules changed going forward-fine. But to argue that the rules
    were unfair retroactively doesn't work.

    I remain cynical aobut doping and believe that massive numbers of top
    atheltes in many sports- not just cycling- use PED's. The game is one
    of using and having methods to avoid detection. Since my cynical belef
    is that that the use of PED's is endemic and the evidence is that only
    a relativly small number of athletes that actually get caught leads em
    to believe that even under the sytem of rules you worry about that the
    athletes hold the upper hand.

  6. Tom Kunich said:


    http://www.wada-ama.org/rtecontent/document/tour_de_france_2003_en.pdf

    That was a very interesting read, thanks. A description and critique of
    the whole process by an independent observer team that monitored sample
    collection, handling, and testing.

  7. gds a écrit :

    Quoted message said:
    Tom Kunich said:
    Quoted message said:

    > At some point you guys just have to give it up. But clearly your are
    >
    not at that point. Is Elvis dead yet?


    You seem to be missing the point - there's a basic difference between the
    American system of justice and the European one. In American the possibility
    of an error is enough to nullify the government's case. In Europe only PROOF
    of an exact error is enough to stop a case.

    In the case of athletes which system do you prefer?

    Tome that isn't the issue. The rules are well known by the athletes
    BEFORE they compete. So, by competing they accept the rules.
    Complaining that other rules or processes would be better after the
    fact doesn't hold much sway with me.And the opportunity to make serious
    mney as a cyclist is totally dependent on racing in Europe. So, the
    Europeans are paying the bill -why is it unreasonable to play by their
    rules?

    So, if you want to argue that based on current events you would like to
    see the rules changed going forward-fine. But to argue that the rules
    were unfair retroactively doesn't work.

    I remain cynical aobut doping and believe that massive numbers of top
    atheltes in many sports- not just cycling- use PED's. The game is one
    of using and having methods to avoid detection. Since my cynical belef
    is that that the use of PED's is endemic and the evidence is that only
    a relativly small number of athletes that actually get caught leads em
    to believe that even under the sytem of rules you worry about that the
    athletes hold the upper hand.


    Don't waste ink.
    Learn this :
    Tom is wrong about American law.
    Tom is wrong about "European" law.
    Tom, with entirely accidental exceptions, is wrong.
    Take it to the bank.

    --

    Sandy
    Verneuil-sur-Seine FR
    --
    Mobilité et stabilité ne sont pas antinomiques :
    un cycliste n'est stable sur sa bicyclette
    qu'en avançant.
    - Chirac, J (who must have read Einstein)

  8. Bob Martin said:
    in 521677 20060807 235554 'Tom Kunich' cyclintom@yahoo. com said:

    You seem to be missing the point - there's a basic difference between the
    American system of justice and the European one.

    Do you know how many countries (and therefore legal systems) there are in
    Europe?
    Such stupid generalisations do not help your credibility.

    And as I've pointed out before, the American system came from Europe (Britain).

    England, I would say, from where it was imposed on the rest of the UK
    and its colonies.It is imprecise to the point of being erroneous to say
    the US system came from Europe.

    It's a matter of perspective, but when someone refers to a European
    system of justice, I would not consider them to be including the
    British system. When I read Kunich's statement, given its context, I
    knew he wasn't talking about the British system. His generalization is
    "generally" correct in its context.

  9. Sandy said:

    --
    Mobilité et stabilité ne sont pas antinomiques :
    un cycliste n'est stable sur sa bicyclette
    qu'en avançant.
    - Chirac, J (who must have read Einstein)

    But obviously never watched track racing.

    -ilan

  10. [email hidden] a écrit :

    Quoted message said:
    Bob Martin said:
    in 521677 20060807 235554 'Tom Kunich' cyclintom@yahoo. com said:

    You seem to be missing the point - there's a basic difference between the
    American system of justice and the European one.


    Do you know how many countries (and therefore legal systems) there are in
    Europe?
    Such stupid generalisations do not help your credibility.

    And as I've pointed out before, the American system came from Europe (Britain).

    England, I would say, from where it was imposed on the rest of the UK
    and its colonies.It is imprecise to the point of being erroneous to say
    the US system came from Europe.

    It's a matter of perspective, but when someone refers to a European
    system of justice, I would not consider them to be including the
    British system. When I read Kunich's statement, given its context, I
    knew he wasn't talking about the British system. His generalization is
    "generally" correct in its context.


    Wow, you want to be wrong !
    Simply put, the adjudicative systems of England and the US have gross
    similarities, while the procedural niceties have been implemented
    entirely separately, with recent trends being rather divergent.
    Next, English law (Magna Carta, and progeny) is Norman law, although
    developed in a different culture.
    Next, the "British" system would not include Scotland, where the system
    is more closely aligned with a civil law approach (Justinian, Napoleon)
    than the loose ramblings of inebriated justice declarers (dusty old
    judges) in England.
    European law is not Napoleonic, especially, although it is wise to
    address Justinian and Roman law to appreciate its roots. And while the
    UK (4 parts) is in Europe, it is opaque to this writer how they really
    wish to remain integrated whilst their legislation constantly enables
    anti-European systems. (For this, see particularly the FSA as relates to
    trans-European investment, insurance and banking matters.)
    Let's have a truce on legal subjects here, in RBR, shall we ? It will
    keep me very quiet, which is of untold positive value for the forum.
    I did have the magret tonight, with the specified viticultural
    accompaniment, and I am just pleasantly passing my time being an
    aggravating legal nerd.

    --

    Bonne route !

    Sandy
    Verneuil-sur-Seine FR

  11. Geraard Spergen said:


    And trickiest of all would be to doctor the actual samples in such a way
    that the seals appear to be unbroken and the results would be identical.

    Does anyone know what the seals are like? I hope they are more than
    just pressure-sensitive adhesives on plain paper labels. I spent 11
    years developing such adhesives and have little respect for them as a
    solitary security seal. Heat and/or solvents make mincemeat of them.

    John
    Aspen Research, - www.aspenresearch.com
    "Turning Questions into Answers"

    Opinions expressed herein are my own and may not represent those of my
    employer.

  12. Quoted message said:
    Geraard Spergen said:

    And trickiest of all would be to doctor the actual samples in such a way
    that the seals appear to be unbroken and the results would be identical.

    Does anyone know what the seals are like? I hope they are more than
    just pressure-sensitive adhesives on plain paper labels. I spent 11
    years developing such adhesives and have little respect for them as a
    solitary security seal. Heat and/or solvents make mincemeat of them.

    John
    Aspen Research, - www.aspenresearch.com
    "Turning Questions into Answers"

    Opinions expressed herein are my own and may not represent those of my
    employer.


    Heat and/or solvets make mincemeat out of plastic sample jars, so
    tampering would be obvious.

  13. Sandy said:

    Wow, you want to be wrong !
    Simply put, the adjudicative systems of England and the US have gross
    similarities, while the procedural niceties have been implemented
    entirely separately, with recent trends being rather divergent.

    So what? I agree with you. You might have also noticed that the US has
    not been an English colony for 230 years; divergence does mean there
    was never any influence.

    Quoted message said:

    Next, English law (Magna Carta, and progeny) is Norman law, although
    developed in a different culture.

    So what? Is Norman law now similar to English? No, it's French. Making
    the statement that English law is derived from Norman law is misleading
    and you know it.

    The fact that English law may be derived from 11th century Norman law
    doesn't invalidate my point that British and US law was influenced by
    English law.

    Quoted message said:

    Next, the "British" system would not include Scotland, where the system
    is more closely aligned with a civil law approach (Justinian, Napoleon)
    than the loose ramblings of inebriated justice declarers (dusty old
    judges) in England.

    Hence my drawing of the distinction between the UK and England.
    However, it is undeniable that English common law has influenced the
    legal system of Scotland- it is also correct to say that the legal
    system of Scotland is much more closely aligned with the system of
    English common law than are the legal systems of the continent.

    Regardless, it was obvious that Kunich was not talking about Scotish
    law, either.

    Quoted message said:

    European law is not Napoleonic,

    I didn't say it was.

    Quoted message said:

    especially, although it is wise to
    address Justinian and Roman law to appreciate its roots.

    Quoted message said:

    And while the
    UK (4 parts) is in Europe, it is opaque to this writer how they really
    wish to remain integrated whilst their legislation constantly enables
    anti-European systems.

    I agree, generally, but I would say that the UK's inclusion in Europe
    has always been more of a cartographic arrangement than cultural, and
    although it still trails the continent, it is probably more integrated
    now than it has been, probably in its history.

  14. "Sandy" <[email hidden]> wrote in message
    news:[email hidden]...

    Quoted message said:

    Let's have a truce on legal subjects here, in RBR, shall we ? It will
    keep me very quiet, which is of untold positive value for the forum.
    I did have the magret tonight, with the specified viticultural
    accompaniment, and I am just pleasantly passing my time being an
    aggravating legal nerd.

    Who wishes you to be especially quiet Sandy? I for one look forward to your
    entries which are universally thoughtful and usually insightful as well.
    Even if you are a French turd.

  15. "gds" <[email hidden]> wrote in message
    news:[email hidden]...

    Quoted message said:


    Tom Kunich said:
    Quoted message said:

    > At some point you guys just have to give it up. But clearly your are
    not at that point. Is Elvis dead yet?

    You seem to be missing the point - there's a basic difference between the
    American system of justice and the European one. In American the
    possibility
    of an error is enough to nullify the government's case. In Europe only
    PROOF
    of an exact error is enough to stop a case.

    In the case of athletes which system do you prefer?

    Tome that isn't the issue. The rules are well known by the athletes
    BEFORE they compete.

    Excuse me, the athletes are forced to compete under a system that they had
    no real input. The doping rules most especially of late have become
    increasingly dictatorial. Now we even know that the testosterone regulations
    will in fact show 5% of those being tested as false positives and yet that's
    acceptable?

    I'm all for preventing doping in cycling. But not at the cost of falsely
    accusing people of using dope. The leaks about Armstrong when there was
    absolutely no way he could clear his name and now Floyd's tests made public
    completely against the writen regulations is simply too much. This isn't
    someone trying to stop doping, it is a group of jackasses trying to destroy
    the reputation of someone without allowing him the chance to clear his name.
    It is disgraceful and anyone that supports them is equally disgraceful.

  16. Kyle Legate said:

    Heat and/or solvets make mincemeat out of plastic sample jars, so
    tampering would be obvious.

    Not in the least. The cups that my physician uses are polyethylene,
    which melts at 140 C or so, more than enough to set the sample boiling.
    And you have to get it that hot in order to even get a solvent (xylene
    for instance) to touch it.

    I am serious about this. Give me a cup with a paper-backed PSA and I'm
    in, out and nobody would be the wiser. I certainly hope that they have
    higher security than this, but I doubt it.

    By the way, I am not arguing this to defend Floyd, but to strengthen a
    shoddy system. I still repeat my original question: what kind of seal
    is actually used?

    John
    Aspen Research, - www.aspenresearch.com
    "Turning Questions into Answers"

    Opinions expressed herein are my own and may not represent those of my
    employer.

  17. In article
    <[email hidden]>,

    Quoted message said:
    Kyle Legate said:

    Heat and/or solvets make mincemeat out of plastic sample jars, so
    tampering would be obvious.

    Not in the least. The cups that my physician uses are polyethylene,
    which melts at 140 C or so, more than enough to set the sample boiling.
    And you have to get it that hot in order to even get a solvent (xylene
    for instance) to touch it.

    I am serious about this. Give me a cup with a paper-backed PSA and I'm
    in, out and nobody would be the wiser. I certainly hope that they have
    higher security than this, but I doubt it.

    By the way, I am not arguing this to defend Floyd, but to strengthen a
    shoddy system. I still repeat my original question: what kind of seal
    is actually used?

    I do not know what is used. I would specify something very
    brittle that can only be removed by fracturing it.

    --
    Michael Press

  18. Michael Press said:


    I do not know what is used. I would specify something very
    brittle that can only be removed by fracturing it.

    I would completely agree.

    I just thought that with all the EXPERTS that grace this newsgroup with
    the presence, someone would know what is used.

    John
    Aspen Research, - www.aspenresearch.com
    "Turning Questions into Answers"

    Opinions expressed herein are my own and may not represent those of my
    employer.

  19. Quoted message said:
    Michael Press said:

    I do not know what is used. I would specify something very
    brittle that can only be removed by fracturing it.

    I would completely agree.

    I just thought that with all the EXPERTS that grace this newsgroup with
    the presence, someone would know what is used.


    Paper seals.

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