General fitness, health and nutrition · Public discussion

Two questions about sex:

Started by John Leonard · · Last activity · 3 posts · 510 views

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General fitness, health and nutrition
Published
30 December 2003
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30 December 2003
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John Leonard
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  1. I have read that the number of males born annually relative to that of the number of females, in the
    human population, is approximately a constant of
    51/49. Since males are at a greater risk of death this difference might help promote a more equal
    distribution at the time of fertility.

    My first question is this: how is this proportion maintained? I am at a loss to understand how it
    could be maintained except through feedback. If this is so, by what means does this feedback assert
    itself? Is it, for instance, conceivable that we unconsciously modulate the likelihood of male
    versus female birth via observations made in our brains?

    My second question is this: In lions we see social groups (i.e. prides) in which females outnumber
    males by several-to-one. Our species has a more one-to-one ratio. First, is there a difference in
    the birth ratios of females to males between lions and humans? Certainly, a male lion fights more
    for the simple opportunity to reproduce than we do. Is there in fact a difference between the nature
    of male competition between lions and humans? Is it that lions compete more for the simple
    opportunity to reproduce whereas humans compete more for the most highly prized females?

    John Leonard

  2. John Leonard said:

    I have read that the number of males born annually relative to that of the number of females, in
    the human population, is approximately a constant of
    51/49. Since males are at a greater risk of death this difference might help promote a more equal
    distribution at the time of fertility.


    That was first shown by Laplace in the eighteenth century. He concluded

    Quoted message said:

    My first question is this: how is this proportion maintained? I am at a loss to understand how it
    could be maintained except through feedback. If this is so, by what means does this feedback
    assert itself? Is it, for instance, conceivable that we unconsciously modulate the likelihood of
    male versus female birth via observations made in our brains?


    I think there is some evidence that this happens, but over a longer time

    a female, it's more likely to have a mate, and produce offspring. This is a classic result, first
    shown by Fisher over 70 years ago. He showed

    essence through the mechanisms you suggested.

    Bob

    --
    Bob O'Hara

    Rolf Nevanlinna Institute
    P.O. Box 4 (Yliopistonkatu 5) FIN-00014 University of Helsinki Finland Telephone: +358-9-191 23743
    Mobile: +358 50 599 0540 Fax: +358-9-191 22 779 WWW: rni.helsinki.fi~boh

  3. John Leonard <[email hidden]> wrote or quoted:

    Quoted message said:

    I have read that the number of males born annually relative to that of the number of females, in
    the human population, is approximately a constant of
    51/49. Since males are at a greater risk of death this difference might help promote a more equal
    distribution at the time of fertility.

    My first question is this: how is this proportion maintained? I am at a loss to understand how it
    could be maintained except through feedback. If this is so, by what means does this feedback
    assert itself? Is it, for instance, conceivable that we unconsciously modulate the likelihood of
    male versus female birth via observations made in our brains?

    The most common hypothesis seems to invokes differences in sperm motility
    - largely due to the approx 3% difference in mass between X-bearing and Y-bearing gametes.
    --
    __________
    |im |yler timtyler.orgtimtyler.org [email hidden] Remove lock to reply.

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